Do you the actual goal of Islam?

Discussion in 'Political Opinions & Beliefs' started by Nike Borzov, Apr 5, 2015.

  1. Princess Supastar

    Princess Supastar Banned

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    So you will obey Sharia law when it comes then.
     
  2. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    there is no Quran verse that says it is okay to wage war for the sake of converting others to Islam, on the contrary (and contrary to some of the nationalist sources you have posted in this thread), there are Quran verses and Hadiths against waging war for the sake of converting others to Islam. No tribe that did not wage war against Islam was ever made to convert to Islam

    that is completely false, the previous verse even says that the tribes who honored their treaty are excepted from their demands

    that wasn't my point at all, in fact I even said the evil is not in the religion but the state (Christianity is not evil, but Christian states have done evil things)

    church and state always leads to bloodshed, and war for territory
     
  3. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    by definition, a war used to gain territory is not a Jihad, and that map you showed does not depict the land Muhammad conquered

    That's like using the Spanish inquisition to claim the new testament says its okay to torture people for the sake of converting people to Christianity. According to the Quran, and Hadiths, it is not okay to wage war for the sake of gaining territory

    edit:

    it is also against Jihad rules to rape captives (as I posted earlier) and yes, the Nazis did claim to be doing gods work, but I never said it was Christian scripture
     
  4. rangecontraction

    rangecontraction New Member

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    Salam alaikum brother.

    The goal of Islam is the perpetuation of Allah's word. We must save humanity from oblivion.

    Allah hu Akbar.
     
  5. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    That is the Umayyad Caliphate less than 150 years after the death of Muhammad. You do not gain that much territory by fighting defensive wars.

    Verse.
     
  6. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    of course not, church and state always leads to wars for territory. Just like how Christian states have broke their own doctrine over and over again (Crusades, Spanish inquisition, the holocaust, ect) so do Islamic states. The evil is not in the religion, but the state

    It is against Jihad rule to wage war for the sake of converting others

    "Dispute not with the people of the book(Christians and Jews). We believe in what has been sent down to us, and what has been sent down to you; our God and your god is one" (29:46)

    “Beware! Whoever is cruel and hard on a non-Muslim minority, or curtails their rights, or burdens them with more than they can bear, or takes anything from them against their free will; I will complain against the person on the Day of Judgment.” - The prophet Muhammad (Hadith recorded by Abu Dawud)

    "There shall be no compulsion in [acceptance of] the religion. The right course has become clear from the wrong. So whoever disbelieves in Taghut and believes in Allah has grasped the most trustworthy handhold with no break in it. And Allah is Hearing and Knowing" (2:256)

    "Fight in the way of Allah against those who fight against you, but begin not hostilities. Lo! Allah loveth not aggressors" (2:190)

    "Permission [to fight] has been given to those who are being fought, because they were wronged. And indeed, Allah is competent to give them victory. [They are] those who have been evicted from their homes without right - only because they say, "Our Lord is Allah ." And were it not that Allah checks the people, some by means of others, there would have been demolished monasteries, churches, synagogues, and mosques in which the name of Allah is much mentioned. And Allah will surely support those who support Him. Indeed, Allah is Powerful and Exalted in Might. (22:39-40)

    "And what is [the matter] with you that you fight not in the cause of Allah and [for] the oppressed among men, women, and children who say, "Our Lord, take us out of this city of oppressive people and appoint for us from Yourself a protector and appoint for us from Yourself a helper?" (4:75)

    "And if they incline to peace, then incline to it [also] and rely upon Allah . Indeed, it is He who is the Hearing, the Knowing" (4:75)

    "Fight them until there is no [more] fitnah (persecution) and [until] worship is [acknowledged to be] for Allah . But if they cease, then there is to be no aggression except against the oppressors" (2:193)

    if they withdraw from you but fight you not, and (instead) send you (Guarantees of) peace, then Allah Hath opened no way for you (to war against them). (4:90)

    Do not commit treachery or deviate from the right path.
    You must not mutilate dead bodies.
    Neither kill a child, nor a woman, nor an aged man.
    Bring no harm to the trees, nor burn them with fire, especially those which are fruitful.
    Slay not any of the enemy's flock, save for your food.
    You are likely to pass by people who have devoted their lives to monastic services; leave them alone (Abu Bakr)


    Once again, in order for it to be a Jihad, the enemy must attack first, and they must give peace when the enemy offers peace. When negotiating a peace treaty, converting to Islam is sometimes an option for the enemy, but no one who did not wage war on Islam was made to convert to Islam in any chapter of the Quran or in any Hadith

    I am speaking specifically about Islamic doctrine, no question there has been offensive wars in Islamic history, as there has been Christian history.. but again, the evil is not in the religion itself, but the state


    now let me ask you, what is your opinion on taking violent actions against Muslims, do you support air strikes that kill Muslims civilians?
     
  7. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    The difference is that the church was sidelined by just about every Christian ruler. The Caliphates were ruled by religious leaders.

    Is that before or after he defeated the Meccans?

    I know for a fact that they would never have used the term "non-Muslim minority".

    Was that before or after he defeated the Meccans?

    "Permission [to fight] has been given to those who are being fought, because they were wronged. And indeed, Allah is competent to give them victory. [They are] those who have been evicted from their homes without right - only because they say, "Our Lord is Allah ." And were it not that Allah checks the people, some by means of others, there would have been demolished monasteries, churches, synagogues, and mosques in which the name of Allah is much mentioned. And Allah will surely support those who support Him. Indeed, Allah is Powerful and Exalted in Might. (22:39-40)[/QUOTE]

    Muhammad himself did not follow these rules.


    They would never have used the phrase "men, women and children".

    "Incline to peace" usually means "surrender".

    Fitnah is more accurately translated as "trial".

    Trial - "a formal examination of evidence before a judge, and typically before a jury, in order to decide guilt in a case of criminal or civil proceedings."

    Therefore, that verse is telling Muslims to fight the infidels until no one questions Islam.

    Islam means "submission", but Muslims often translate it as "Peace". Therefore, it is likely that the verse actually says submission, not peace.

    Abu Bakr himself did not follow those rules.

    The number of people killed by the Caliphates were exponentially higher than the number of people who have been killed by airstrikes.
     
  8. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    not true, Queen Isabel (the Spanish queen who started the Spanish inquisition) was made official monarch of the Catholic church by Pope Alexander VI. Being awarded such a title is hardly being "sidelined" buy the church, and vice versa... quite the opposite as a matter of fact, they were working together. The Lutheran church was also involved in similar practices of persecution

    and again, the Meccan tribes who honored the treaty of Hudaybiyyah were excepted from Mohammad's declaration of war. For you to say you "know for a fact" what Islamic doctrine would say is peculiar considering how consistently you have been getting your facts wrong

    there are multiple translations, but a Muahid is a non-Muslim living in Muslim land with agreement, such as a non-Muslim living in an Islamic state. (not to be confused with a mujahid)

    http://www.alsiraj.net/English/misc/nonmuslims/html/page27.html


    and finally, one of the meanings of Fitnah is persecution

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fitna_(word)#Persecution (and they even use the same exact verse quoted as an example)

    Fitna as persecution appears in several of the verses commanding Muslims to fight the unbelievers (specifically referring to the Meccan polytheists who had persecuted Muhammad and his early followers, thus leading to the hijra). For example, in Qur'an 2:191, the command to fight is justified on the grounds that "persecution (al-fitnatu) is worse than slaying." Similarly, in Qur'an 2:193, Muslims are forbidden from fighting unbelievers around the Holy Mosque in Mecca unless the unbelievers attack first, in which case Muslims are to fight "until there is no persecution (fitnatun) and the religion is God's."


    therefore, that verse is telling Muslims to fight until there is no more persecution.. seriously, how do you go on being so consistently wrong?
     
  9. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    There have been hundreds, if not thousands of Christian kings and queens throughout history.

    1) Verse.

    2) It is impossible to tell what parts of the Qu'ran are factual and what parts were subject to historical revisionism.

    "Non-Muslim minority" would have been an extremely unusual term for them to have used. It had never been used before, and it was never used afterwards.
     
  10. Pregnar Kraps

    Pregnar Kraps New Member Past Donor

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  11. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    oh, and how many of them were made Monarchs of the Catholic church?

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catholic_Monarchs

    answer, Isabella and her husband

    in 1974 the church gave Isabella the title "Servant of God"
     
  12. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    Please get back on topic.
     
  13. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    uh, excuse me? I'm addressing the posts that were made by you.. they're inaccurate, all of them, and you never acknowledge that, you just keep posting inaccurate post after inaccurate post

    I'll make a response showing your post is inaccurate, and instead of admitting you were wrong, you add another inaccurate post, and then another. Then when I stop and say, "hey wait a minute, you're post is inaccurate" you revert to (no pun intended) "hey stay on topic!"

    going back to verse 9:5

    http://theamericanmuslim.org/tam.php/features/articles/quran_95_commentary

    as I have explained before, verses 9:4, 9:6, and 9:7 excepts those who did not break their treaty, and orders them to protect the idolaters who seek asylum

    [video=youtube;kQOIXuw1gFw]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kQOIXuw1gFw[/video]
     
  14. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    I didn't even mention Isabella.

    Back at you.

    News flash: Isabella was not the only Christian monarch in history.

    You can't go back to something we weren't discussing in the first place.
     
  15. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    actually, I was referring to your post "The difference is that the church was sidelined by just about every Christian ruler. The Caliphates were ruled by religious leaders."

    this was your post in response to my post about the horrible things Christians did, where I included the inquisition in my post

    when I say Queen Isabela was made the monarch of the catholic church, I do not mean she was a monarch who happened to be catholic, I mean the head of the catholic church (Pope Alexander VI) gave Queen Isabela (the monarch responsible for the inquisition) and her husband the honors of being the official monarch of the church. They are the only two monarchs in history to be given this honor... then in 1974, the church again honored her with the title "defender of god"

    and finally you made reference to Muhammad's war with the Meccans, my response to you was Muhammad only waged war on the Meccans who broke their treaty with Muhammad's people. Verse 9:5 is referencing said war with Meccans, but apparently you did not know that... which isn't surprising

    you also continue to get your Arabic words wrong, but again without acknowledging your mistake
     
  16. Goomba

    Goomba Well-Known Member

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    It means "submission to the One God." Arabic words can have many meanings, so yes, it can also mean peace.

    You need to first know the basics.
     
  17. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    and as Muhammad said about the people of the book (the Christians and the Jews) "our god and your god is one"

    The unfortunate thing is when Christians see the word god in the old testament, they think of their god, but when they see the word god in the Quran, they think of someone else.
     
  18. FireBreather

    FireBreather Banned

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    In response to the OP: I do the actual goal of Islam. Or perhaps I don't. I'm not sure how to verbalize it.
     
  19. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    You said that the problem was not the religion, but rather the state. I pointed out that most Christian rulers sidelined the church, while the Caliphs were the church (for lack of a better term).

    Before the war, Muhammad tolerated dissident. After the war, not so much.

    That assumes that the Qu'ran is telling the truth. If they lied about being attacked, then your argument collapses, since that would not change the teachings of the Qu'ran.
     
  20. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    It's definitely not an impossibility for the Quran to lie, but that is not what Muslims believe. What Muslims believe, and what the Quran tells says is that Muhammad never waged war for the purpose of gaining territory or converting others to Islam, that he only went to war with those who attacked first. It is very possible that he and his men attacked first, but then wrote it down that the other army attacked first, but again that is not what the Quran tells, nor is it what Muslims believe in

    also note that the rules of Jihad, and holy war are based on Islamic scripture such as the Quran (also note that holy war is one of three meanings for Jihad) The rules of holy war say that the Islamic state cannot attack first, nor can they declare war for the sole sake of converting others to Islam or gaining territory

    where you are wrong is you state that the Christian nations who waged offensive wars were violating their doctrine, where the Muslims nations were not. They both violated their doctrine

    Also, when I mentioned the atrocities of Christian nations, (which I named the Spanish inquisition as one of my examples), your response was that the difference was that the Christian leaders sidelined the church, which is also not true. In modern sense it is true (as I stated earlier, most western civilizations have relinquished their theocracies), but during the medieval times (which is when the caliphates you mentioned took place) all Catholic rulers had to be approved by the pope himself, and this includes Vlad The Impaler, he was also in coalition with the Catholic church. You could even argue that the Christian nations of the medieval times were in even greater coalition with their church than the Muslim countries. The Muslims had a different church leader for every country, where as the Catholic nations had a head to their church as a whole, and this head even called on all Christian nations to wage war

    I do agree with you in part though, as I stated earlier the big difference between the west and the middle east is that the western countries gave up their theocracy a long time ago.. but to use Medieval military campaigns as an example of how Christian and Muslim leaders differ is off base. The only real difference between the two is the Christian's major churches were more centralized
     
  21. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    The Bible says that the world was created in six days. There is no evidence for that, and there is significant evidence against it, which has forced Christians to reinterpret that part of the Bible.

    The Qu'ran says that the Meccans attacked first. If that did not happen, then the entire "defensive war" argument collapses and all of the verses must be reinterpreted.

    Do you see what I'm trying to say?

    Not even the people who wrote those rules obeyed them.

    I never said that the Christians violated their doctrine.

    A vast majority of them did sideline the church.

    Many of them went on to have tense relations with the Pope.

    Vlad the Impaler was put on the throne by the Ottoman Empire.
     
  22. TCassa89

    TCassa89 Well-Known Member

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    You're getting your history confused, Vlad was a Romanian Catholic who went to war against the Ottoman empire, which in part is why he had the pope's full approval, because he was fighting against the church's enemy . He in part was put on the throne through inheritance, and approved by the Catholic church. It's inaccurate to claim the majority of the Christian leaders sidelined the church, the church was the lead authority of Europe during that time

    again, in modern sense it is true, but during the medieval times (which is when the caliphates you mentioned took place) that is far from the truth, the majority were in a coalition with the church
     
  23. CJtheModerate

    CJtheModerate New Member

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    Vlad's father was overthrown by the Hungarians in 1442. The Ottomans invaded Wallachia and put his father back on the throne, but his father was forced to give Vlad and his brother, Radu, to the Ottomans as hostages.

    When Vlad's father was killed by the Boyars, the Ottomans invaded Wallachia (again) and put Vlad on the throne.

    The church had sustainable influence over the peasants. They did not have the same influence over the nobility.

    What the hell is a "coalition with the church"?
     
  24. Goomba

    Goomba Well-Known Member

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    I think it's because Westerners don't like the fact that the final Prophet was an Arab.
     
  25. gorte

    gorte Banned

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    who says that Mohammad was the final prophet? there's been Joseph the Morman and the Reverand Moon, ya know. All have just as much "legitamacy" as Jesus or Abraham or Mohammad. They're all a bunch of bsers.
     

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