What Exactly Were Our Founding Fathers' Intention With The "Right To Bear Arms"???

Discussion in 'Gun Control' started by jmpet, Aug 29, 2012.

  1. dnsmith

    dnsmith New Member

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    The second amendment stands on its own as codification of the right to keep and bear arms by individuals. Congressional power to arm the military is irrelevant to the 2nd amendment.

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    The first clause is not null and void and it does not say, infer, or suggest it must exist for the people to have the rights. Both were enumerated, and both are valid but neither requires the other to be valid.
     
  2. dnsmith

    dnsmith New Member

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    The second amendment is part of our constitution as soon as it was ratified. It is not a constitution unto itself, it is part of the whole, and it confirms the inalienable rights of people to defend themselves and their family and to procure food.

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    He has proved all of your opinions false many times, if only you were smart enough or courteous enough to accept it.
     
  3. danielpalos

    danielpalos Banned

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    No. It doesn't; that is found in State Constitutions:

     
  4. dnsmith

    dnsmith New Member

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    So? Nothing in that changes the 2nd amendment or limits it in any way. It only relates to the authority and training and the value of the militia to the states. It has nothing to do with your argument nor does it have anything to do with our argument. The issues are separate and distinct, and has nothing to do with the right of the people to keep and bear arms, NOTHING.
    Great, and it has nothing to do with the codified right of the people to keep and bear arms.
    It also has nothing to do with socialism.
    Article 1, Section 8 does not vest rights in private property, nor does it have anything to do with the 2nd amendment and the right of the people to keep and bear arms with or without a militia.
    It allows for the arming of the militia. It does not mean anything about individuals ceding anything to or not to election to the House. You are mixing your subjects, and the subjects do not specifically relate to each other.
     
  5. dnsmith

    dnsmith New Member

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    The second amendment is part of our constitution as soon as it was ratified. It is not a constitution unto itself, it is part of the whole, and it confirms the inalienable rights of people to defend themselves and their family and to procure food.
     
  6. stjames1_53

    stjames1_53 Banned

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  7. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Repeatedly proven false
     
  8. rahl

    rahl Banned

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    Repeatedly proven false
     
  9. dnsmith

    dnsmith New Member

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    I cannot understand why he was allowed to get away with his trolling and insulting as long as he did, and it cost me a number of problems in the process.
     
  10. stjames1_53

    stjames1_53 Banned

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    even if it's only temporary, it gives us a break from his insanity
     
  11. crisismanagement6

    crisismanagement6 New Member

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    He was one of the most flagrant cases of trolling I have seen over 20 years of forum use.
     
  12. stjames1_53

    stjames1_53 Banned

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    my suspicion is that he was a bot using auto posting. almost 100% of his posts were identical even when they were off-topic
     
  13. dnsmith

    dnsmith New Member

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    I have never understood how a bot can do auto posting and still retain the topic under discussion.
     
  14. vinceli

    vinceli Member

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    Their intention was the right to bear arms in that day and age when there was no real military or police force for the country.
     
  15. danielpalos

    danielpalos Banned

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    Only the People who are a well regulated Militia may not be Infringed when keeping and bearing Arms for their State or the Union.
     
  16. Logician0311

    Logician0311 Well-Known Member

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    The Founding Fathers instituted gun laws so intrusive that, were they running for office today, the NRA would not endorse them. While they did not care to completely disarm the citizenry, the founding generation denied gun ownership to many people: not only slaves and free blacks, but law-abiding white men who refused to swear loyalty to the Revolution.

    And why is there so much debate over what was meant by that (conveniently ignored) “well regulated militia” part of the Second Amendment? The Founding fathers spelled out exactly what they meant with the Militia Act in May of 1792...
    The Militia Act conscripted every "free able-bodied white male citizen" between the ages of 18 and 45 into a local militia company. (This was later expanded to all males, regardless of race, between the ages 18-54)
    Militia members, referred to as "every citizen, so enrolled and notified," "...shall within six months thereafter, provide himself..." with a musket, bayonet and belt, two spare flints, a cartridge box with 24 bullets, and a knapsack. Men owning rifles were required to provide a powder horn, 1/4 pound of gunpowder, 20 rifle balls, a shooting pouch, and a knapsack. Some occupations were exempt, such as congressmen, stagecoach drivers, and ferryboatmen. Otherwise, men were required to report for training twice a year, usually in the Spring and Fall.
    Talk about an “individual mandate”....

    The militias were divided into "divisions, brigades, regiments, battalions, and companies" as the state legislatures would direct. The provisions of the Act governing the calling up of the militia by the President in case of invasion or obstruction to law enforcement were also spelled out in the Act. Court martial proceedings were authorized by the statute against militia members who disobeyed orders.

    When’s the last time one of our “lawful gun owners” reported to muster, had their weapons registered and inspected, obeyed the lawful orders of senior officers... In line with the original intent of the Founding Fathers in writing the Second Amendment?
     

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